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MPX1686
How does the interhemispheric fissure appear in this image?
The anterior interhemispheric fissure is partially formed, but the rest of the fissure is not visible.
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MPX1124
How does the patient history play a role?
The patient's history of 42 y.o. combat fighter pilot c/o "blind spot" - sudden onset six days ago and lasted about four hours. Previous Hx of a similar episode several years ago. is key in understanding the case.
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MPX1320
Can you explain why the post-contrast images did not show enhancement?
The reason for no enhancement on the post-contrast images may be due to the nature of the lesion being a glioma, which typically does not enhance with contrast.
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MPX2158
Talk about the condition:
The disease is discussed as: Chondrosarcoma encompasses 20-25% of all bone sarcomas and is the second most frequent malignant bone tumor of the spine after chordoma (3-12% arise in the spine). The average age of onset is in the adult between the ages of 40- 60 with a greater predisposition for men. The distribution is more common in the flat bones, especially the shoulder and pelvis. The presentation is most commonly of the exostotic type, as a large calcified mass in a vertebral body developing into the paraspinal tissue. The center of the tumor is often calcified with stippling and mottling with underlying bone distruction with a thick cap of sarcomatous cartilage surrounding the calcified mass. The causes include de novo appearance, malignant transformation of an enchondroma, or development from the cartilaginous cap of an osteochondroma. The clinical hx is often one of an indolent pain, swelling, with a progressive increase in size to the point of compression of neighboring organs, nerve root, or spinal cord compression. The cartilage emits a high T2 signal on MRI. Treatment is radical surgical resection due to the fact that the tumor is very refractory to chemotherapy. Incidently, most tumors are discovered late in presentation forcing a piecemeal resection and increased recurrence post-op. The dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma a low-grade tumor often transforms into osteosarcoma or malignant fibrous histiocytoma and becomes responsive to chemotherapy. Prognosis is that a low-grade lesion has a 90% 10-year survival, while high-grade have 20-40% 10-year survival. Follow-up with plain films to screen for recurrence.
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MPX1686
What are the imaging findings?
The imaging shows This patient has agenesis of the corpus callosum. The posterior fossa is small, with a normally formed cerebellum, which is compressed inferiorly, and the 4th ventricle and cerebral aqueduct are patent. The globes maintain cross-midline symmetry, and hypotelorism is noted. The optic tracts are normally formed. The thalami are fused, and there is partial interhemispheric fusion of the insular parenchyma, and a suggestion of anterior frontal lobe fusion. There is a partially formed posterior falx cerebri, and anterior interhemispheric fissure. There is a probable large monoventricle with a dorsal interhemispheric cyst, abutting dysplastic cerebral tissue. There is an apparent hypoplastic left internal jugular vein. A cephalocele at the vertex is also noted. T2 weighted axial image through the level of the orbits reveal the optic tracts are normally formed. The globes maintain cross-midline symmetry, and hypotelorism is noted. The cerebral aqueduct is patent. The falx cerebri is partially formed, with a surrounding fluid collection. There is a rudimentary left occipital and temporal horn, abutting dysplastic cerebral tissue. The right occipital and temporal horn are not visualized..
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MPX1124
What appears to be the issue?
The findings suggest • Lateral geniculate body - abnormal signal and enhancement • Additional periventricular lesions. Lesion in the lateral geniculate body. The patient might have a history of 42 y.o. combat fighter pilot c/o "blind spot" - sudden onset six days ago and lasted about four hours. Previous Hx of a similar episode several years ago..
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MPX1941
How does the presence of an ICA aneurysm affect the patient's condition?
The presence of an ICA aneurysm contributes to the overall complexity of the carotid cavernous fistula, as it drains into the cavernous sinus and affects surrounding blood vessels, making treatment more challenging.
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MPX1410
What is the primary finding in this MRI scan?
Symmetric severe dilation of the third and lateral ventricles.
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MPX1967
What could the diagnosis suggest?
The possible diagnosis includes free fragment synovial cyst.
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MPX1523
What is the main finding in this CT scan of the left kidney?
The CT scan shows a segmental area of decreased enhancement with a thin cortical rim enhancement.
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MPX2442
Talk about the condition:
The disease is discussed as: Celiac trunk, abdominal aorta, & the iliac arteries are all prone to get aneurysms and may all develop over time together. An aneurysm is a focal dilation of a arterial vasculature with regard to the primary or adjacent artery. In the abdomen the most typical aneurysm is an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) which is defined as an aortic diameter that should have a normal value at the level of the renal arteries of ranging from 1.4 to 3.0 cm with the average typically being 2.0cm. (1,2). Iliac aneurysms may be associated with AAA about 16% of the time (3) and most of the time it involves the common iliac artery. However, celiac artery aneurysms are one of the more uncommon forms of splanchnic artery aneurysm (4). The celiac trunk gives rise to the left gastric, common hepatic, and splenic arteries. As in this case, AAA most often occur in the segment of aorta between the renal and inferior mesenteric arteries. Typically, unlike dissecting thoracic "aneurysms," abdominal aortic aneurysms involve all layers of the aorta and do not usually create an intimal flap or false lumen as in this case. Mural thrombus may also develop due to poor blood flow/movement through the aneurysm as seen in the celiac artery aneurysm in this case. The most common risk factors for developing abdominal aneurysms include age (>60), smoking, sex (>males), race (2x more common in whites as opposed to blacks), atherosclerosis, hypertension, and family history. The USPSTF recommends that men ages 65 – 75 who smoke should get a one time screen for AAA via the preferred modality of real-time ultrasonography (5). CT and MRI are alternative imaging modalities that may also be used.
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MPX1984
What was observed in the imaging?
The imaging shows • Lung parenchyma - no masses or airspace disease. • Bilaterally, numerous calcified pleural plaques along thoracic cage and diaphragmatic surfaces. • Small rectangular scattered non-calcified pleural thickenings are also observed. • There is no mediastinal, hilar or axillary lymphadenopathy. Multifocal areas of pleural thickening with calcification..
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MPX2455
What type of complications can arise from an osteochondroma?
Besides bursal inflammation, pathologic fracture, and malignant transformation, osteochondromas may cause vascular and neurological complications and osseous deformities due to displacement or compression of adjacent structures.
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MPX1130
In what way does the history help explain the case?
The patient's history of G1P0A1L0 with 6-7 episodes abnormal menstrual bleeding, FMH included Pt's mother took DES is key in understanding the case.
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MPX1549
Explain the disease:
The disease is discussed as: Craniosynostosis is the early fusion of one or more of the cranial sutures. The incidence of craniosynostosis in newborns is approximately .4 per 1000; and, less than 10% involve the metopic suture. Metopic craniosynostosis usually only has cosmetic consequences, and the patients usually have normal intellectual development. This condition is usually idiopathic, but there are other varieties of craniosynostosis that are components of syndromes.
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MPX1387
What is the likely diagnosis for the multiloculated intra- and extra-axial posterior fossa mass in this 21-month-old patient?
The findings suggest that the mass is most consistent with a congenital process such as dermoid which has become secondarily infected, specifically an infected dermoid cyst.
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MPX2021
What appears to be the issue?
The findings suggest Lipoma at level L2 and Filum terminale. Cord rotated with fibrous band posteriorly at L2-3.. A lipoma with chemical shift artifact and fibrous attachment to cord is present at L23 along with a second lipoma of the filum terminale.. The patient might have a history of 17 Year old who at age 10 underwent surgery fo a tethered cord..
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MPX1205
How does the patient history play a role?
The patient's history of 58 y/o female with past medical history of diabetes and hypertension presents with 4 day history of right sided numbness and tingling. is key in understanding the case.
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MPX2314
What type of cancer is depicted in the CT scan image?
The image shows a malignant embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, a rare and aggressive form of soft tissue sarcoma.
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MPX1034
According to the epithelial rest theory, what are the origins of ectodermal implants found between the first branchial cleft and pouch in a 10-week-old fetus?
These ectodermal implants have an unknown function and typically resorb at 33 weeks gestation; if they persist, they may form a chronic cholesteatoma.
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MPX1086
Where is the solid mass located in the brain?
The solid mass is located in the left cerebellar hemisphere.
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MPX1502
How is the history relevant to the case?
The patient's history of 20 year-old female with a history of diplopia presents to the emergency department. is key in understanding the case.
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MPX2064
What is the typical presentation or symptoms of pneumopericardium that healthcare providers would look for?
Patients with pneumopericardium may present with chest pain as a potential symptom, especially if no trauma is present; it's essential to recognize this condition early on to prevent complications.
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MPX1170
How does the patient's altered mental status relate to their symptoms?
The patient's altered mental status may be related to increased intracranial pressure or potential compression of critical brain structures due to the hemorrhage.
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MPX2347
What is the suspected problem?
The findings suggest Chest radiograph demonstrates branching opacity in a bronchovascular distribution in the right middle lobe. Review of prior imaging demonstrates presence of a Vein of Galen Malformation (VOM) with recent embolization treatment with Onyx. Multiple serpentine flow voids seen on MRI. Angiogram confirms shunting from multiple feeders into a dilated Vein of Galen, draining into an enlarged straight sinus.. Focal aneurysmal dilation in the region of the Vein of Galen. The patient might have a history of 8 yo girl for follow-up of after embolization of Vein of Galen Aneurysm with Onyx. A Chest X-ray was ordered to confirm endotracheal tube placement following an uneventful post-operative course..
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MPX2384
What is methanol poisoning?
Methanol poisoning is an uncommon but extremely hazardous intoxication caused by the ingestion of methanol, a versatile fuel.
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MPX2183
What is the clinical presentation of a patient with rectovaginal fistula?
A 71-year-old female presenting with feces per vagina, indicating the presence of a fistulous communication between the rectum and vagina.
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MPX1213
What are the imaging findings?
The imaging shows • The sulci and ventricles are not visible. • There is high attenuation on the surface of the brain. • The suprasellar cistern shows visible CSF - but high attenuation linear material There is diffuse swelling of the brain, very symmetric, with effacement of sulci and ventricles. There appears to be high attenuation on the surface of the brain. This could be due to SAH. However, there is no evidence of blood in the suprasellar cistern..
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MPX1317
What was the diagnosis given for this patient's condition?
The diagnosis given was early appendicitis.
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MPX1384
Talk about the condition:
The disease is discussed as: Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell neoplasm that is characterized by involvement of the skeletal system in multiple sites. It accounts for 1% of all malignancies and is most prevalent in the 70-80 year old range. Symptoms include bone pain, anemia, fever, weight loss, and weakness, as well as neurologic symptoms. Laboratory findings include elevated ESR, anemia, hypercalcemia and hyperuricemia. Elevated globin levels are present, usually involving IgG, but any of the immunoglobulins may be produced. The plasma cell burden will eventually displace and erode the bony trabeculae and give rise to the musculoskeletal symptoms. Classically, multiple myeloma will appear as osteolytic lesions. These arise predominantly in the verterbral bodies, ribs, skull, pelvis and femur. However, diffuse skeletal osteopenia may be observed without focal lytic lesions. Pathologic fractures are common. Both plain films and MDP scintigraphy have a significant false negative problem: Plain film false negative 9-25%; and, MDP false negative 40-60%. http://www.med.harvard.edu/JPNM/TF94_95/Jan17/WriteUpJan17.html However, FDG PET may be useful, with a sensitivity of 85% and specificity of 92% reported. PMID: 15788594
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MPX1998
According to the case information, what is a common feature in patients with Tuberous Sclerosis?
Renal angiomyolipomas, which are fatty-containing masses.
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MPX1084
What is the suspected problem?
The findings suggest Axial T1W images demonstrate ill-defined increased signal in posterior tissues of left globe and left retro-ocular tissues Axial contrast-enhanced fat saturated T1W images demonstrate enhancement and thickening of the posterior wall of the left globe and left retro-ocular tissues Axial T2W images demonstrate a low intensity mass involving the posterior aspect of the left globe and retro-ocular tissues.. The lesion is dark on T2W images.. The patient might have a history of Decreased vision left eye.
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MPX2065
What is the Spetzler-Martin grade of this AVM?
The Spetzler-Martin grade of this AVM is 4, indicating a high-risk lesion.
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MPX1950
Explain the disease:
The disease is discussed as: Duplicated renal collecting systems represent renal units with two distinct pyelocalyceal systems associated with either a single or double ureter. In the case of two distinct ureters, the ureters either join together along their course and form a single ureter, or they both insert individually on the bladder. This anomaly presents either unilaterally or bilaterally, and is estimated to occur in up to fifteen percent of the population. Most individuals with a duplicated renal collecting system remain asymptomatic with their anomaly being found incidentally on imaging studies. Those patients who become symptomatic with their duplicated collecting system generally have two distinct and complete urters, and are prone to developing obstruction, reflux, and infection. A duplicated renal collecing system forms by one of two ways. The first results from the embryologic bifurcation of a single ureteral bud prior to the bifurcation of the ampulla, and produces either a bifid ureteral pelvis or a bifid ureter which joins distally prior to bladder insertion. The second results when two distinct embryologic ureteral buds arise from the Wolffian duct, giving rise to two complete and separate ureters which insert separately into the bladder. In this second case, with two separate ureters, the upper pole ureter drains below and medial to the lower pole ureter at its insertion. According to the Weigert-Meyer rule, the upper pole ureter is prone to obstruction and hydronephrosis as well as ureterocele formation, while the lower pole ureter is prone to refulx and at is risk for pyleonephritis. Additionally, this upper pole ureter may insert ectopically inferior to the bladder (e.g. urethera, or vagina), causing continual leakage of urine in females (not the case in males as the ectopic insertion is proximal to the external uretheral sphinter).
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MPX1576
Describe the condition in detail:
The disease is discussed as: The dilation of the wall of an artery, vein, or the heart, that forms a sac-like structure. For image, see: http://rad.usuhs.mil/rad/radbrowser2/head/PlainFilm/zzsaneur.html
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MPX2335
How does the behavior of an adrenal adenoma compare to metastatic lesions in terms of enhancement and washout after contrast administration?
Adrenal adenomas avidly enhance with rapid washout, whereas metastatic lesions show delayed enhancement and slower washout.
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MPX1191
Q1: What is the primary diagnosis of this patient?
A1: The patient has hepatocellular carcinoma with extension to the right atrium.
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MPX1139
What are the symptoms and signs of acute appendicitis as described in this case?
The patient presented with acute onset lower abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, rebound tenderness, guarding, and an elevated white blood cell count.
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MPX1256
What are the imaging findings?
The imaging shows Skull Series: There is a small lesion adjacent to the right frontal sinus measuring 2.6 x 1.5 cm in size. This lesion has a partially sclerotic margin and no other significant osseous abnormality is seen. CT: There is an expansile intra-osseous lesion, measuring approximately 3.1 x 1.3 cm, in the right frontal bone, with a thin sclerotic rim with preservation of the trabeculae. There is an apparent disruption in the cortex anteriorly, which is well corticated and likely represents an enlarged feeding vessel. There is no periosteal reaction. MRI: Expansile lesion of the frontal bone. Low in signal on T1, high signal on T2, and avid enhancement post contrast. Foci of high signal on T1 are noted, most likely representing fat. Avid enhancement of the lesion is noted.
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MPX2347
What could the diagnosis suggest?
The possible diagnosis includes Without the provided history, this radiographic finding is concerning for aspiration of contrast or other radio-opaque material..
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MPX2027
What is the typical imaging appearance of choroidal melanoma on unenhanced CT scans?
These lesions appear elevated, hyperdense, are sharply marginated, and following contrast administration avidly enhance.
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MPX1879
What are some possible differential diagnoses for this type of lesion?
Meningioma, lymphoma, hemangiopericytoma, metastatic carcinoma, inflammatory lesions such as sarcoidosis and Wegener's granulomatosis, and infections such as tuberculosis.
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MPX1193
What is a characteristic imaging feature of a thyroglossal duct cyst?
A characteristic imaging feature of a thyroglossal duct cyst is a well-defined hypodense lesion with internal fluid attenuation, often imbedded within the strap muscles.
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MPX1300
What are some possible causes of omental torsion, as mentioned in the disease discussion?
Possible causes include an accessory omentum, bifid omentum, irregular accumulations of omental fat in obese individuals, and a narrowed omental pedicle.
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MPX2322
What might the diagnosis be?
The possible diagnosis includes Arachnoid cyst Epidermoid cyst Dermoid cyst Parasitic cyst Cystic glioma Chronic Hematoma.
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MPX2064
How does pneumopericardium typically occur in patients with trauma?
Pneumopericardium is often associated with existing pneumothorax or pneumomediastinum in patients with traumatic injuries, such as gun shot wounds to the chest.
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MPX1755
What are the common causes of constrictive pericardial disease, as mentioned in the case discussion?
The most common cause is postpericardiotomy and hemopericardium for any reason, followed by radiation therapy, Coxsackie B virus, TB, uremia, connective tissue disease, neoplasm, and idiopathic etiologies.
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MPX2046
What is the potential diagnosis?
The possible diagnosis includes 1. Discitis/osteomyelitis 2. Pott's Disease 3. DJD 4. Metastatic cancer.
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MPX2094
How is the history relevant to the case?
The patient's history of 45 year old male with recent diagnosis of gastric carcinoma undergoing staging CT. is key in understanding the case.
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MPX1346
What is the potential diagnosis?
The possible diagnosis includes Pseudocyst, Serous cystadenoma, Mucinous cystadenoma/ cystadenocarcinoma, IPMT - Branch Type.
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MPX1796
According to the treatment & follow-up section, what is the recommended treatment for intracranial epidermoid tumors?
Surgical resection with radical removal of the tumor capsule.
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MPX1473
What is the potential diagnosis?
The possible diagnosis includes Usual Interstitial Pneumonia, Non-specific Interstitial Pneumonia, Rheumatoid lung dz, Chronic Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis.
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MPX1435
What is the typical behavior of a developmental venous anomaly (DVA) in terms of symptoms?
They are typically asymptomatic, with patients often having no symptoms or unrelated symptoms.
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MPX1384
How does the etiology of multiple myeloma relate to occupational exposure?
There is an increased incidence among petroleum, leather, and cosmetology workers, as well as those exposed to radiation, herbicides, insecticides, heavy metals, plastics, and asbestos.
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MPX1690
What is a common cause of vertebral artery dissection?
A common cause of vertebral artery dissection is trauma or external neck manipulation, although it can also occur spontaneously.
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MPX2018
What is the main concern?
The findings suggest Plain film: film shows anatomic alignment without fracture. Ill-defined sclerosis is seen in the lateral aspect of the metadiaphysis of the proximal tibia. Osteophytosis is seen in the medial femoral condyle and patella. NM scan (25.3 mCi of Tc-99m MDP IV): There is moderate, focal uptake in the region of the plain film abnormality. No other areas of abnormal radiopharmaceutical uptake. MR: Lesion within the lateral proximal tibia in a metadiaphyseal location measures 8 cm in greatest dimension. Ill-defined borders. Lateral cortex appears intact and may or may not be involved with the lesion. Some new bone formation may be present. Lesion has low T1, low T1 fat-sat, high T2 and some enhancement heterogeneously in the lesion. CT: There is an anterolateral, cortically based sclerotic lesion extending into the anteromedial medullary space, with whispy margins and note of serpiginous lucencies running through it. There is no evidence of cortical destruction or fracture or fibular involvement or soft tissue involvement. There is no significant periosteal change. This lesion involves the anterolateral metaphysis and proximal diaphysis of the left tibia.. There is an anterolateral, cortically based sclerotic lesion extending into the anteromedial medullary space, with hispy margins and note of serpiginous lucencies running through it. There is no evidence of cortical destruction or fracture or fibular involvement or soft tissue involvement. There is no significant periosteal change. This lesion involves the anterolateral metaphysis and proximal diaphysis of the left tibia. Correlation with recent MRI showing serpiginous contrast enhancement within the cortically based lesion and this constellation of CT findings is most consistent with a cortically based osseous hemangioma.. The patient might have a history of 55 y/o white female with persistent lower extremity pain..
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MPX1084
What is the initial impression from the axial T2W images at this level?
The initial inspection demonstrates no abnormality.
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MPX2229
Describe the condition in detail:
The disease is discussed as: Pulmonary sequestrations are masses of pulmonary parenchyma which do not communicate with the central airways through a normal bronchial connection, if at all. In addition, their blood supply is from the systemic circulation. Demonstrating the feeding systemic arterial vessels is the key point in differentiating sequestrations from bronchogenic cysts, lobar atelectasis or other abnormalities. Extralobar sequestrations are congenital in origin and contain their own pleural covering. Most (over 90%) are left-sided and associated congenital anomalies, such as congenital diaphragmatic hernias and congenital heart disease, are frequent. The venous return is through the systemic circulation. These may not only be seen adjacent to the mediastinum, but also in the mediastinum, pericardium, diaphragm, and retroperitoneum. Rarely is a connection with the bronchial tree present and rarely are they symptomatic. A majority of these are noticed incidentally. Intralobar sequestrations are located within the lung and have no separate pleural coverings. Although their arterial supply is systemic, their venous return is through pulmonary veins. Compared to the extralobar form, intralobar sequestrations are likely acquired lesions, possibly due to chronic bronchial obstruction or postobstructive pneumonia. Connection to the bronchial tree may be present. This variety may produce symptoms as a result of infections.
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MPX1297
How do Killian-Jamieson diverticula differ from Zenker's diverticulum in terms of their location and relation to the cricopharyngeus muscle?
Killian-Jamieson diverticula are located on the lateral wall of the cervical esophagus, while Zenker's diverticulum originates on the posterior wall of the pharyngoesophageal segment in a midline area.
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MPX1172
What are the radiographic signs of small bowel obstruction that were observed in this case?
The patient had dilated loops of small bowel with prominent air fluid levels on flat and upright abdominal films, indicating a mechanical blockage of the small intestine.
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MPX2433
What are some common causes of scleral plaques besides orbital calcifications?
Systemic hypercalcemic states such as hyperparathyroidism, hypervitaminosis D, sarcoidosis, chronic renal disease.
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MPX1788
What might the diagnosis be?
The possible diagnosis includes Alzheimer disease, frontal and temporal dementia, HIV and HSV encephalitis, hydrocephalus, metabolic disorders, multi-infarct dementia, diffuse Lewey body disease, Hashimoto encephalopathy..
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MPX1141
Q2: What are some potential differential diagnoses for the lesion in question?
A2: Some potential differential diagnoses include Meningioma, PXA (Pleomorphic Xanthoastrocytoma), Metastatic disease, and AVM (Arteriovenous Malformation).
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MPX1574
How does the administration of intra-articular gadolinium help in diagnosing a SLAP lesion on MR imaging?
It clearly demonstrates the abnormal signal extension into the substance of the triangle, which represents a SLAP lesion.
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MPX2195
What is unique about the venous drainage pattern in this patient's AVM?
The MRI demonstrates multiple flow voids in the right cerebellum, indicating a complex network of abnormal vascular channels without intervening capillaries, which may have an impact on venous drainage.
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MPX1892
How is the history relevant to the case?
The patient's history of History (can include gestational age, or age in days, weeks, months): 70 y/o female for follow up CT scan to monitor for any pulmonary changes due to a recent 15lb weight loss, otherwise asymptomatic. is key in understanding the case.
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MPX1016
How does stage IV disease in adenocarcinoma of the lung get managed?
Stage IV disease is primarily managed with chemotherapy or with palliative measures for symptomatic relief.
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MPX2466
What are the potential complications of untreated PAVMs in patients with HHT?
Untreated PAVMs can lead to severe complications such as paradoxical embolization causing stroke, brain abscess, TIAs, pulmonary hemorrhage, and other serious cardiovascular events.
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MPX2295
What are the primary complications associated with large or symptomatic Angiomyolipomas?
The primary complications associated with large or symptomatic Angiomyolipomas include spontaneous hemorrhage, extension into the inferior vena cava, and spread to local lymph nodes without progression to malignancy.
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MPX2297
What might the diagnosis be?
The possible diagnosis includes Malrotation with partial volvulus Omental hernia Partial sbo from adhensions.
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MPX1576
How was the treatment of this particular berry aneurysm documented?
The aneurysm was coiled soon after discovery, with interval imaging confirming resolution for three years post-coiling.
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MPX1202
Where are the areas of restricted diffusion located according to the MRI findings?
The areas of restricted diffusion are located in the right temporal lobe and two in the right posterior frontal lobe.
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MPX2094
How is the history relevant to the case?
The patient's history of 45 year old male with recent diagnosis of gastric carcinoma undergoing staging CT. is key in understanding the case.
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MPX2580
How does the patient's symptoms relate to the mass effect of the tumor?
The patient's symptoms, such as gait disturbance and cranial neuropathies, are secondary to the mass effect of the tumor on adjacent structures.
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MPX1130
What might the diagnosis be?
The possible diagnosis includes complete bicornuate, incomplete bicornuate, infertility.
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MPX2142
What is the primary location of the tumor described in the post-Gad T1WI image?
The tumor is located centrally over the planum sphenoidale.
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MPX1397
In what way does the history help explain the case?
The patient's history of 27 year old woman presenting to the emergency room with the worst headache of her life. is key in understanding the case.
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MPX2501
What is the abnormality in the right kidney's contour?
The right kidney has a lobular contour.
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MPX1631
How does the patient history play a role?
The patient's history of 54 year-old male with recurrent abdominal pain and diarrhea. is key in understanding the case.
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MPX2022
What is the prognosis for patients with diffuse anaplasia in their Wilms tumor?
The prognosis for patients with diffuse anaplasia in their Wilms tumor is less favorable, with a poorer outcome compared to those without this histologic characteristic.
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MPX2330
What organisms are commonly grown from retropharyngeal abscesses?
The most common organisms grown from these abscesses are Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococci, Staphylococcus aureus, and Hemophilus influenza.
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MPX2479
What are the three classifications of bronchiectasis on HRCT?
The three classifications are cylindrical (bronchi with fusiform dilation and lack of tapering), varicose (more dilated bronchi with constrictions), and cystic (thick-walled saccular dilatations with air-fluid levels).
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MPX2563
What is the clinical significance of the loss of T2 signal related flow void of the right vertebral artery in the paramedullary cistern?
The loss of flow void indicates occlusion or compromise of the vessel, which can lead to ischemia or infarction of the surrounding brain tissue.
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MPX1481
Describe the condition in detail:
The disease is discussed as: • most common congenital vascular anomaly of the aortic arch • with the anterior aorta, the ARSA creates a vascular ring around the mediastinal structures, including the trachea and esophagus • most often asymptomatic • may cause wheezy or stridorous breathing; usually picked-up by 2 years • dysphagia ("dysphagia lusoria"), particularly in patients with a wide based take-off of the aberrant vessel ('Diverticulum of Kommerell'). • widened mediastinum silhouette on plain PA/AP chest films • posterior notch on barium swallow/esophagogram • associated with many types of congenital heart disease, Down's, VCFS (Velo-Cardio-Facial), DiGeorge's, Dubowitz's, and Edward's syndromes
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MPX2367
How does the patient history play a role?
The patient's history of 42 yo man presents with onset of right shoulder pain for two years, combined with right upper extremity numbness and tingling. is key in understanding the case.
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MPX2195
What could the diagnosis suggest?
The possible diagnosis includes Differential Diagnosis not available.
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MPX2019
Which part of the knee is typically involved in SONK?
The medial femoral condyle, but it can also affect the lateral femoral condyle or the tibial plateaus.
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MPX1952
What is the estimated patient prevalence of Multiple Sclerosis in the United States?
250,000 to 350,000.
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MPX1268
How common is technical failure due to these factors?
Technical failure occurs in approximately 20% of cases.
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MPX1507
What type of viral infections does CMV belong to, according to the TORCH group?
CMV belongs to the TORCH group which includes toxoplasmosis, other-varicella, rubella, herpes simplex and HIV.
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MPX1643
How does the mass appear to enhance on Axial T1 postgadolinium with fat saturation as shown in Film #4?
The mass enhances intensely but only slightly inhomogeneously.
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MPX2601
What is the main finding described in the axial CT images?
Mild smooth thickening of the interatrial septum with diffuse fat attenuation.
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MPX1214
How does the appearance of an Endolymphatic Sac Tumor on imaging studies relate to its histological characteristics?
The tumor typically shows contrast enhancement and may contain blood products that produce characteristic regions of hyperintensity on T1-weighted images and hypointensity on T2-weighted images, which can be related to its capillary configuration and hemorrhagic fluid.
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MPX2563
How long ago did the patient experience the initial cervical chiropractic treatment?
Four months prior to imaging, following a second cervical chiropractic treatment 15 days later.
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MPX1434
How does the appearance of chordoid glioma on MRI differ from its appearance on CT imaging?
On MRI, chordoid gliomas are typically isointense to gray matter on T1-weighted images, while they appear hyperdense on CT scans. They also enhance homogeneously after contrast administration on MRI.
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MPX1796
What is the potential diagnosis?
The possible diagnosis includes • Epidermoid tumor • Arachnoid cyst • Dermoid tumor • Acoustic neuroma (Vestibular Schwannoma) • Malignancy.
alignment
MPX1366
What is the typical age range for patients diagnosed with fibromuscular dysplasia?
The majority of patients diagnosed with fibromuscular dysplasia are less than 30-40 years old, including children, and often present with renovascular hypertension or progressive renal insufficiency.
alignment
MPX1135
Describe the treatment plan recommended for this patient's pheochromocytoma.
The recommended treatment involves preoperative alpha blockade with prazosin followed by surgical excision of the tumor, along with follow-up imaging studies and biochemical tests to monitor for potential malignancy or metastasis.
alignment
MPX1124
What are some potential differential diagnoses for this patient, given the presence of periventricular lesions and abnormal signal enhancement near the lateral geniculate body?
Based on the provided information, potential differential diagnoses include multiple sclerosis, Lyme disease, acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM), sarcoidosis, and vasculitis (such as systemic lupus erythematosus).
from caption
MPX2175
Talk about the condition:
The disease is discussed as: Venous sinus thrombosis is caused by thrombus formation in the dural venous sinuses or cerebral veins. It is an uncommon disorder (2-7 per million) which can have serious complications. Causal factors include local (regional infection, trauma, neoplasm) and systemic (dehydration, hypercoagulable states, pregnancy, oral contraceptives). Clinical presentation includes headache, neurologic deficits or seizures. The superior sagittal sinus is most commonly affected, followed by the transverse and sigmoid sinuses. Complications include venous infarcts, intracerebral hemorrhage and intracranial hypertension. On noncontrast CT, the thombosed sinus is usually hyperdense. This is nonspecific as dehydrated patients, adjacent subdural or subarachnoid hemorrhage or elevated hematocrit can cause increased sinus attenuation. On contrast enhanced CT, the empty delta sign is a central defect from thrombus surrounded by contrast enhanced blood. On MRI, absence of a flow void or abnormal signal within the sinus is seen. MR venography with two-dimensional time-of-flight is used due to high sensitivity for slow flow compared to 3D TOF. Contrast enhanced MRV improves visualization of small vessels. CT venography is a rapid and accurate method for evaluating the venous sinuses. Disadvantages include ionizing radiation exposure and need for iodinated contrast material.
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MedPix-VQA Dataset

The MedPix-VQA dataset is a version of the data found at MEDPIX-ClinQA, specifically modified to address an image overlap issue that would result from directl splitting the original dataset. This overlap can lead to a model potentially seeing the same image during both training and validation, potentially leading to bias or data leakage.

Key Modifications:

  • We have modified the dataset to ensure no image overlap between the training and validation sets. This was done by grouping the data based on image hashes and ensuring that all instances of an image (with different Q&A pairs) are either in the training set or in the validation set, but not in both.
  • This ensures that the model's evaluation is done on truly unseen images, providing a more accurate assessment of its generalization performance.

Dataset Structure:

The dataset consists of the following columns:

  • image_id: The ID for each image.
  • mode: The mode or context for the image.
  • case_id: The unique case identifier.
  • question: A textual question related to the image.
  • answer: The corresponding answer to the question.

Dataset Split:

  • Training Set: 17420 examples (85%)
  • Validation Set: 3080 examples (15%)
DatasetDict({
    train: Dataset({
        features: ['image_id', 'mode', 'case_id', 'question', 'answer'],
        num_rows: 17420
    })
    validation: Dataset({
        features: ['image_id', 'mode', 'case_id', 'question', 'answer'],
        num_rows: 3080
    })
})

Usage:

This dataset is designed for training and evaluating Visual Question Answering (VQA) models in the medical domain. It contains images from MedPix, a well-known medical image database, paired with questions and answers that focus on image interpretation.

📚 Citation

If you use this dataset, please cite the original authors:

@misc{siragusa2024medpix20comprehensivemultimodal,
  title={MedPix 2.0: A Comprehensive Multimodal Biomedical Dataset for Advanced AI Applications},
  author={Irene Siragusa and Salvatore Contino and Massimo La Ciura and Rosario Alicata and Roberto Pirrone},
  year={2024},
  eprint={2407.02994},
  archivePrefix={arXiv},
  primaryClass={cs.DB},
  url={https://arxiv.org/abs/2407.02994}
}
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